For Whom Did Christ Die?
No question has raised more controversy (inside orthodox Christianity) than this question. In the following essay, I will present and defend the doctrine that Christ died efficaciously for those whom The Father put Him on the cross for (Acts 2:23). To bring it right to the forefront, unless you are a Universalist (belief that all have received salvation) then you in some way limit the atonement of Christ. Even though the title is the classical question, I prefer: "Did Christ die for anyone or for the possibility for everyone?"
This question is of course a point of contention within Soteriology (most often between Covenant Theologians). So, which is it: the Synergistic (Arminian) Unlimited Atonement or the Monergistic (Calvinistic) Limited Atonement?
Let there be no misunderstanding at this point. The Arminian limits the atonement as certainly as does the Calvinist. The Calvinist limits the extent of it in that he says it does not apply to all persons...while the Arminian limits the power of it, for he says that in itself it does not actually save anybody. The Calvinist limits it quantitatively, but not qualitatively; the Arminian limits it qualitatively, but not quantitatively. For the Calvinist it is like a narrow bridge that goes all the way across the stream; for the Arminian it is like a great wide bridge that goes only half-way across. As a matter of fact, the Arminian places more severe limitations on the work of Christ than does the Calvinist.
Lorraine Boettner, The Reformed Doctrine of Predestination
Also, I also want to deal with a typical Arminian emotional argument. The Arminian would say, "why should I bother evangelizing when God has already predestined those who He wants to be saved and they don't have the ability to respond?" The fact is that whether your Arminian or Calvinist there are still an "elect" today in this world. The Arminian believes in conditional election, or that God reciprocates our choice for Him before the foundation of the world. The Calvinist believes that God alone makes the choice, because humans, due to the Fall, do not have the moral ability to respond. So, there are still an "elect" whether you proscribe to either system. The Arminian is forced to admit that this is indeed true if he is to be theologically consistent. Also, with using this Arminian argumentation, which usually is on the basis of a verse such as 1 John 2:2 or 1 Timothy 2:1-4, then that makes God out to be a miserable failure! The only acceptable interpretation of these Scriptures is that it is a will of command and not a will of decree. So, let us not back ourselves into emotional arguments that will get us nowhere.
"If ever there should come a wretched day when all our pulpits be full of modern thought, and the old doctrine of substitutionary sacrifice shall be exploded, then there will remain no word of comfort for the guilty or hope for the despairing."
Charles H. Spurgeon
Was Christ's Death to be an Offer or to be Effectual?
"For the Son of Man has come to save that which was lost."
Matthew 18:11and He Himself bore our sins in His body on the cross, so that we might die to sin and live to righteousness; for by His wounds you were healed.
1 Peter 2:24For God did not send the Son into the world to judge the world, but that the world might be saved through Him.
John 3:17The saying is trustworthy and deserving of full acceptance, that Christ Jesus came into the world to save sinners, of whom I am the foremost.
1 Timothy 1:15
It is quite apparent that The Father put His Son on the cross to be an effectual saving act. It encompasses one intent and that intent will be fulfilled. It was not meant to simply come off as an "offer," but Christ's death was meant to save a people. It is possible, when dealing just with Unlimited Atonement, that Christ could have died for no one and no reason. But the Arminian contends, "but God knew who would come to Him." Exactly! You are, in a circular fashion, validating the Monergistic concept of election.
Christ's Death as Assistance or the Primary Causal Agent?
But you denied the Holy and Righteous One, and asked for a murderer to be granted to you, and you killed the Author of life, whom God raised from the dead. To this we are witnesses.
Acts 3:14-15 (ESV) (emphasis added)For it was fitting for Him, for whom are all things, and through whom are all things, in bringing many sons to glory, to perfect the author of their salvation through sufferings.
Hebrews 2:10 (emphasis added)Therefore, since we have so great a cloud of witnesses surrounding us, let us also lay aside every encumbrance and the sin which so easily entangles us, and let us run with endurance the race that is set before us, fixing our eyes on Jesus, the author and perfecter of faith, who for the joy set before Him endured the cross, despising the shame, and has sat down at the right hand of the throne of God.
Hebrews 12:1-2 (emphasis added)
From these passages, is Christ simply an assistor? No. Jesus Christ is the author and the perfecter of our faith. Furthermore, I find it very troubling, both textually and philosophically, that Christ's death did not secure the faith of anyone (as in the classical definition of Unlimited Atonement). What a travesty that would be!
The Wrath of God on the Cross
I question the Arminian, what encompassed the wrath of God onto Christ on the cross? Was it unlimited? Was it general?
Now from the sixth hour there was darkness over all the land unto the ninth hour. And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is to say, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me? Some of them that stood there, when they heard that, said, This man calleth for Elijah.
Matthew 27:45-47 (KJV)
A Case for the Penal Substitutionary Atonement
It is the thesis of this essay to contend that Christ's death (the atonement) was in fact penal (of relating to punishment) and substitutionary (in place of).
As a result of the anguish of His soul, He will see it and be satisfied; By His knowledge the Righteous One, My Servant, will justify the many, As He will bear their iniquities.
Isaiah 53:11Husbands, love your wives, just as Christ also loved the church and gave Himself up for her, so that He might sanctify her, having cleansed her by the washing of water with the word, that He might present to Himself the church in all her glory, having no spot or wrinkle or any such thing; but that she would be holy and blameless.
Ephesians 5:25-27 (emphasis added)For God has not destined us for wrath, but for obtaining salvation through our Lord Jesus Christ, who died for us, so that whether we are awake or asleep, we will live together with Him.
1 Thessalonians 5:9-10Jesus spoke these things; and lifting up His eyes to heaven, He said, "Father, the hour has come; glorify Your Son, that the Son may glorify You, even as You gave Him authority over all flesh, that to all whom You have given Him, He may give eternal life. I ask on their behalf; I do not ask on behalf of the world, but of those whom You have given Me; for they are Yours;
John 17:1-2, 9
Who are those that The Father has given to Christ? His death was for the elect, those who are to receive salvation. Each of these passages (and many more) speaks clearly of Christ as the substitute for God's holy and just wrath.
The Necessity of Evangelism in Light of Limited Atonement
Again, to re-iterate the first argument usually posed by Arminians is that of the necessity of evangelism. The doctrine of Limited Atonement has magnified my desire for evangelism, and it does this for the following reasons.
- I am assured that God will overcome human depravity (Matthew 16:17).
- I am assured that there are those out there who will still believe (1 Peter 1:1-5).
- The gospel is the very means to which we are saved (Mark 1:15).
- The most important is that I am to obey Christ's commands for my life (Matthew 28:18-20).
It should also be noted that Limited Atonement in no way deters the genuiness of the gospel call.
Conclusion
James White declares: "[w]e have seen, then, that the Word teaches that Christ died for many, for His sheep, for the Church, for the elect of God, for His friends, for a people zealous for good works, for His people, for each and every Christian."1
To this I completely agree. If it were left to humans to come to Christ—Christ would have died for no one (Ephesians 2:1, 1 John 3:14). The death on the cross was for a particular redemption, the true and only intention of the cross. This doctrine is meant to magnify God's glory and majesty. Let Him be exalted. Soli Deo Gloria!
Jesus answered, "I told you that I am He; so if you seek Me, let these go their way," to fulfill the word which He spoke, "Of those whom You have given Me I lost not one."
John 18:8-9
Suggested Reading
- Was Anyone Saved at the Cross? by James White
- Monergism.com: Atonement
Feb 22nd 2005
Also, with using this Arminian argumentation, which usually is on the basis of a verse such as 1 John 2:2 or 1 Timothy 2:1-4, then that makes God out to be a miserable failure!
God has graciously ordained to be a failure in some ways. We must admit this, because his kindness is meant to lead the stubborn and unrepentant to repentance (Romans 2), even though many of these are the vessels mysteriously hardened by God (Romans 9 & 11) for greater purposes. To be sure, God's "failures" are part of his larger, successful eternal purpose, but they are nonetheless ineffectual.
I assume you believe the atonement is to be offered to everyone on the condition of saving faith. You and I must then admit that God has ordained to "fail" largely in that manner too (with regard to the offer), for most reject God's pleas. "All day long I have held out my hands to a disobedient and contrary people" (Romans 10).
To quote Bruce "I-hit-Open-Theism-with-a-big-stick" Ware on 1 John 2:2:
"Notice that 'world' occurs 28 times in 1 John, 26 of which are used either in a comprehensive sense (e.g., 2:17; 3:17; 4:1, 9) or more narrowly as the world of the unsaved (e.g., 2:15-16; 3:1, 13; 5:19). This makes doubtful that 2:2 and 4:14 refer to a world of the elect."
Also notice the context of John 3:17:
"19 And this is the judgment: the light has come into the world, and people loved the darkness rather than the light because their deeds were evil."
Jesus is meant to be lifted up by the Father, just like Moses lifted up the serpent in the wilderness, so that everyone could be offered amnesty, and everyone that received that offer (Romans 3) would be effected that amnesty.
You can believe in substitutionary atonement and still believe in the new covenant effects of the blood and still believe that the blood was shed to be offered and available to everyone in the world. To minimize the offer-aspect of the atonement I think would be unfortunate, given that mosts texts regarding the Jesus' blood-sacrifice regard that intent/aspect.
Some various notes:
- While I believe the Spirit is the primary causal agent in regeneration, Acts 3:14-15 does not lend itself toward that. "Author of life" is meant to ironically contrast "you killed", highlighting the Holy and Righteous One's identity as God. His creatorship (creatorhood?) is behind emphasized here, not his monergistic grace.
- John 17:1-2, 9 does not speak of substitution.
- John 18:8-9 does not speak of the atonement.
I personally recommend a more multi-faceted study on the death of Christ, starting with separate studies on the atonement-emphases in each on the gospels. I also recommend integrating the significant of the ascension as well.
Grace and peace in Christ our common King and Spirit-giver! Aaron
Feb 22nd 2005
Thank you Aaron for your response. We just met, and we ironed out that many of these arguments stem out of your understanding that I was going to talk exclusively about the substitutionary nature of the atonement.
We talked that I was not analyzing 1 John 2:2 as your rebuttal implied; it was solely for the nature of the Arminian theological conception of God's will of command. I would suggest reading John Gill's thoughts on 1 John 2:2.
You can believe in substitutionary atonement and still believe in the new covenant effects of the blood and still believe that the blood was shed to be offered and available to everyone in the world.
While I do say that L.A. does not detract from the genuineness of the gospel call, I do not hold that there is an intent for all to be saved in the atonement (and I know you disagree with me here). But of course you're right in stating that it can be offered to all (but apart from the regeneration work of the Spirit no one will respond).
His creatorship (creatorhood?) is behind emphasized here [Acts 3:14-15], not his monergistic grace.
Did I not emphasize this?
I believe John 17:1-2, 9 does actually speak of substitution: "...but of those whom You have given Me..." Also, I didn't use John 18:8-9 in the context of "proofing" the atonement. I like to end my essays with a Scripture not about the majesty of God's grace. I use that text more-so for Eternal Security.
I personally recommend a more multi-faceted study on the death of Christ, starting with separate studies on the atonement-emphases in each on the gospels.
This essay was in no way intended to be comprehensive. I could, and many have, filled volumes upon volumes on the theoretical doctrines behind the atonement of Christ.
Feb 22nd 2005
Good post, brother.
I like the language of Titus 2, similar to Ephesians 5, "to purify for himself a people"
Titus 2
11 For the grace of God has appeared, bringing salvation for all people, 12 training us to renounce ungodliness and worldly passions, and to live self-controlled, upright, and godly lives in the present age, 13 waiting for our blessed hope, the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ, 14 who gave himself for us to redeem us from all lawlessness and to purify for himself a people for his own possession who are zealous for good works.
Feb 22nd 2005
Brother,
Iron sharpens iron...
I guess the only thing that stems from my misunderstanding of your theme was the John 18:8-9 quotation. Everything else that I can think of still stands.
Given John's normal usage of the word "world" in the epistle, Gill's remarks are not convincing. It seems like a classic case of eisegesis. I'd rather prioritize internal exegetical evidence rather than bring outside evidence (i.e. the broader usage of kosmos).
"...I do not hold that there is an intent for all to be saved in the atonement."
Then you can't say in evangelism, "God *wants* you to be saved by receiving his propitiation." "Want" would imply an intent. Unless we recognize multiple intents in the atonement, I think we're paying lip-service to the genuineness of a propitiation-receiving gospel-call.
Your quotation of Acts 3:14-15 comes under the heading, "Christ’s Death as Assistance or the Primary Causal Agent?" The passage has nothing to do with God being the primary casual agent in monergistic grace.
Just because John 17:1-2, 9 speaks of Christ's own doesn't mean it speaks of substitution. There's absolutely nothing in that particular passage that refers to an atoning sacrifice.
Grace and peace in Christ the High Apostle, Aaron
Feb 22nd 2005
That John 17 is speaking of scope of the atonement; in that, being limited, His death was substitutionary (i.e. not general).
I don't think my statement on God's lack of intent for all to be saved detracts from saying that God's wants a people to be redeemed. I declare that there is an intent for salvation, but not for the salvation of all.
And there are obviously textual issues we disagree on. So be it.