Law in the New Covenant

John Reisinger says in his introduction to Abraham's Four Seeds: God's Promise to Abraham and His Seed:

Let us not make the same mistakes that the Reformers made. They thoroughly reformed the gospel message of justification by faith but failed to reform some other doctrines. They threw out justification by the works of the law, but held on to sanctification by the law. They rejected the Church's authority over your soul, but hung on to the Church's authority over your conscience. They discarded priestcraft and substituted clericalism. They rejected the authority of Church tradition (which taught Papal infallibility) but replaced it with man-made creeds that soon became as authoritative as Scripture. In reality they replaced a two-legged Pope with a paper Pope. They cried sola Scriptura while waving a creed in one hand and a sword in the other.

That is an amazing quote. He also says, "Reformed Baptists are among the leaders in the present day revival of Calvinistic literature." Of course I just love that statement. I'm finding myself comfortable in a tradition that is being rediscovered in academic circles with a position entitled New Covenant Theology (hereafter NCT). Modern theologians who espouse a similar view would include D.A. Carson, Douglass Moo, John Piper, Tom Schreiner, and John Reisinger. What I'm trying to show is that the position of NCT is seeing a large boom in theological circles.

I mention NCT, because I believe many "reformed" churches which include Presbyterian, Reformed Baptists, and reformed theologians in independent/non-denominational churches all espouse a distorted view of the Pauline, and New Testament, conception of the Law. This led John to say that: "They [the reformers] threw out justification by the works of the law, but held on to sanctification by the law." Well, Martin Luther himself proposed a view on the relation of Christians to the Law of Moses:

But we will not have this sort of thing. We would rather not preach again for the rest of our life than to let Moses return and to let Christ be torn out of our hearts. We will not have Moses as ruler or lawgiver any longer. Indeed God himself will not have it either. Moses was an intermediary solely for the Jewish people. It was to them that he gave the law. We must therefore silence the mouths of those factious spirits who say, "Thus says Moses," etc. Here you simply reply: Moses has nothing to do with us. If I were to accept Moses in one commandment, I would have to accept the entire Moses. Thus the consequence would be that if I accept Moses as master, then I must have myself circumcised, wash my clothes in the Jewish way, eat and drink and dress thus and so, and observe all that stuff. So, then, we will neither observe nor accept Moses. Moses is dead. His rule ended when Christ came. He is of no further service.
Martin Luther, How Christians Should Regard Moses (pgs. 164-5)

Even though that it is a very stiff passage, it cuts right through the fluff to get to the root of what he is saying (the New Covenant perspective on Law/Gospel is often labeled "Modified Lutheranism"). I believe that Paul also taught this as well (although in a more poetic form):

Is the Law then contrary to the promises of God? May it never be! For if a law had been given which was able to impart life, then righteousness would indeed have been based on law. But the Scripture has shut up everyone under sin, so that the promise by faith in Jesus Christ might be given to those who believe. But before faith came, we were kept in custody under the law, being shut up to the faith which was later to be revealed. Therefore the Law has become our tutor to lead us to Christ, so that we may be justified by faith. But now that faith has come, we are no longer under a tutor. For you are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus.
Galatians 3:21-26

But Paul is not antinomian (a word perpetuated by classical covenant theologians who disagree with their view on the Law), but he sees New Covenant believers under the Law of Christ.

For though I am free from all men, I have made myself a slave to all, so that I may win more. To the Jews I became as a Jew, so that I might win Jews; to those who are under the Law, as under the Law though not being myself under the Law, so that I might win those who are under the Law; to those who are without law, as without law, though not being without the law of God but under the law of Christ, so that I might win those who are without law.
1 Corinthians 9:19-21

It's interesting that he says that he himself is not under the Law (vs. 20d). He speaks of those under the Law as being under captivity, and this is a theme he uncovers more in his second letter to the church at Corinth. He says that the Law was a "ministry of death" (2 Cor 3:7), and the "whenever Moses is read, a veil lies over their heart" (2 Cor 3:15). He goes on to expound upon the fact that when someone comes to Christ the Law (veil) passes away, "But whenever a person turns to the Lord, the veil is taken away" (2 Cor 3:16).

I find problem with the hermeneutical principles of classical covenant theologians that proclaim that whatever is not abolished in the New Testament remains in effect of the Old (so then Presby's, why do you correlate baptism with circumcision when it has passed away, but that is not the focus of this article). A proper Pauline conception of the relation of Law and Gospel comes from his view that (1) when he refers to the Law he is referring to the Law in its totality (in other words, there is no civil, ceremonial, and moral distinction in the Law; cf. Rom 7:7), (2) that the Decalogue was the sign of the Old Covenant not to be removed from it, and (3) that God's unchanging moral law is reflected in the commands of Christ and His apostles.

Paul wasn't the only that spoke of this. The author to the Hebrews interprets the prophecy of a new covenant in Jer 31:31-34 and applies to the Church, and the author exegetes the passage from Jeremiah: "When He said, 'A new covenant,' He has made the first obsolete. But whatever is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to disappear" (Heb 8:13). From this passage, I can see what it means for the New Covenant to have the Law "written on the heart." I believe that Jeremiah is prophesying that the Law will also change in a drastic way (which from my studies so far, I haven't seen such a declaration in the Old Testament).

It should be noted that I'm not Dispensational either classical or progressive. Even though I have a similiar view on the Law/Gospel issue as them that doesn't mean that I am one of them. I do think that the Church is the "New Israel" (Rom 9:6; Eph 2:11ff; Phil 3:3; Gal 6:16), that Gentiles are heirs to the Abrahamic Covenant by faith (Rom 4; Gal 3), and I don't think Israel will be rebuilt nationally in a millennium (although I'm still struggling with how Rom 11:26 works out eschatologically). This is where the distinction comes from New Covenant Theology and dispensationlism (that is, I see no distinction in God's plan for ethnic Israel and the Church, cf. Gal 3:8-9).

I could go on, but I'd rather point you to some article which I believe do a much better job that I could of expounding upon this view of the Law. It should be noted that one is a Reformed Baptist and the other Presbyterian so the view is represented in various reformed circles.

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9 total comments, leave your comment.
  1. What do you think is the best way to word the relationship between the Abrahamic and New Covenants?

  2. The Abrahamic Covenant is not the "Old" Covenant--the Mosaic one is (2 Cor 3). The Abrahamic Covenant starts in Gen 12:1-3 and ends in Rev 5:9. Paul said in Gal 3:8-9 that God foresaw justifying the Gentiles by faith while giving Abraham the covenant.

    Think of it like this.

    Old Covenant - Moses - Old Law (Sinai)
    New Covenant - Jesus - New Law (Calvary)

    The Abrahamic covenant goes over both of those. That's why Paul uses Abraham (not under Law) and David (under the Law) in talking about how they were both justified by faith and imputed righteousness in Rom 4.

  3. "The Abrahamic covenant goes over both of those."

    That's what I was getting at. So is Abraham in the NC at all?

    And if the Abrahamic Cov. was really one of faith, why did unregenerate people receive the sign (8-day old baby boys)?

    Many unsaved people were part of the Mosaic Covenant, and no unsaved people are part of the NC. But I don't understand how the Abrahamic Cov. worked. I thought the Abrahamic was the same as the New (only those who have faith can be in it), but the sign was given to unsaved people. And I just read this verse:
    Acts 3:25 "You are the sons of the prophets and of the covenant that God made with your fathers, saying to Abraham, ‘And in your offspring shall all the families of the earth be blessed.’ "
    Peter seems to be telling unsaved Jews who killed Jesus that they are heirs of the Abrahamic Covenant.

    Do you think there is a sense in which an unsaved person (a descendant of Abraham) could be a part of the Abrahamic Cov. though he may not be a part in another sense? Maybe it has 2 aspects: an earthly one which gets fleshed out by the Mosaic Covenant -- God making Israelites His people, and then a spiritual aspect fleshed out by the NC -- God gives hearts of flesh, people of faith are the spiritual seed of Abraham, etc...

  4. busy weekend....more like busy life. i haven't forgotten about you and hangin out. as you can see, there is a lot going on. i need my language partners info again if you can. i thought i saved the email but i didnt and the number i have for her is wrong (i guess). thanks...and lets talk soon.

  5. Chris
    Mar 9th 2006

    Well, Abraham himself is in the elect of God, but he wouldn't be "in" the New Covenant. What comes over is the covenant God made with him. Galatians 3 and Romans 4:1-13 are important in this regard.

    Entering into the Abrahamic Covenant was not something necessarily based on faith. Ethnic Jews were heirs to the covenant, but they weren't all regenerate (i.e. Esau). However, in the New Covenant you can only join into the New Covenant which is an extension, if you will, of the Abrahamic Covenant by faith (Jer 31:33).

    Peter was telling something that you got, but he was also telling them something else. He was telling them about how the covenant to Abraham need be fulfilled: that is, that all nations need to be blessed (Rev 5:9; Mat 24:14, 28:19).

  6. Very helpful- Thanks!

  7. I guess the concept of broken-off olive branches would apply here?

  8. Bobby Fleck
    Mar 11th 2006

    Hey buddy. Does the Galatians 3 passage quoted not lead you to believe we should use the Law in sharing the Gospel: "Therefore the Law has become our tutor to lead us to Christ, so that we may be justified by faith."? How does Romans 7:7 lead us to the conclusion that there can be no moral, civil, and ceremonial distinction in the law? Why if the new covenant is obsolete does that neccessarily make the Law obsolete (Hebrews 8:13)? And why do you make the "veil" in 2 Cor 3 synonymous with the Law? I see that "veil" as being "things that come from the Spirit of God...are spiritually discerned." (1 Cor 2:14). We'll have to talk about some of this stuff. Hopefully, we'll hang out tonight and talk about it.

  9. Bobby,

    You found my blog! As for your questions. You asked some good ones.

    The Law of God was meant to point us toward Christ, but understand historically what is going on. Is God's Law meant to point the New Covenant area people towards Christ? I would say no for this reason. Paul, contextually, was speaking of how the Law historically pointed to Christ; but now Christ has come. He has fulfilled it, and He also did away with it. He replaced it with Himself, His righteousness, and His commands (or "His Law"). We live in the New Covenant age where Christ has been revealed. We need to preach Him. Now don't get me wrong, and I don't want to skid around this; but I think we certainly can use Sermon on the Mount topics to illustrate what it means to follow Him, but Jesus Himself said He came to fulfill all the Old Testament prophecies, and so yes He was pointing to Himself but in the same historical context Paul was writing in.

    Romans 7:7 is important because Paul writes an equation: Coveting = "L"aw. In other words, this commandment is equated with the Law in its totality. So when Paul elsewhere speaks of "L"aw he includes the 10 Commandments. What does this mean? It means that there is no threefold distinction. Paul sees the "L"aw as being all-encompassing.

    I equate Law with unbelief in a lose sense in 2 Cor 3. The "minstry of death" (vs. 7) is the written Law. In Christ, the "ministry of death" is over, and what stood for the ministry of death, the written Law, passes away.

    Hebrews 8 is important, because for many reasons that I'm not going to list all here, but the main thing is that the Law was the sign of the Old Covenant and the New Covenant sign is the Cross. Remove the Old Covenant and remove the sign of the Old Covenant.

    We'll continue to hammer out these issues bro.

    -> Christine, if you are speaking in a sense that the ethnic Jews were broken off of unbelief in the Messiah then yes that analogy would fit.

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